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KCAA ATC Practice Questions - KCAA Air Traffic Controller Theoretical Knowledge Examination (Kenya) Exam
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Question
1
of 25
QUESTION 1 / 25
What is the standard vertical separation minimum applied between IFR aircraft operating under Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) space between FL290 and FL410 inclusive?
Choose one answer below.
A
500 feet
✓
B
1,000 feet
✓
C
2,000 feet
✓
D
3,000 feet
✓
QUESTION 2 / 25
Under ICAO and KCAA airspace classifications, what air traffic control services are provided to VFR flights operating in Class D airspace?
Choose one answer below.
A
VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and from other VFR flights.
✓
B
VFR flights are separated from IFR flights, but receive only traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.
✓
C
VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights (IFR and VFR) and traffic avoidance advice on request, but are not separated by ATC.
✓
D
VFR flights receive no ATC service and operate entirely autonomously.
✓
QUESTION 3 / 25
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which aircraft has the right-of-way according to KCAA Rules of the Air?
Choose one answer below.
A
The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.
✓
B
The aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way.
✓
C
The faster aircraft has the right-of-way and the slower aircraft must give way.
✓
D
The aircraft operating under instrument flight rules (IFR) always has the right-of-way.
✓
QUESTION 4 / 25
Except for local flights, within how many minutes prior to departure must a flight plan be filed with KCAA Air Traffic Services for a flight intending to operate in controlled airspace?
Choose one answer below.
A
At least 15 minutes before departure
✓
B
At least 30 minutes before departure
✓
C
At least 60 minutes before departure
✓
D
At least 120 minutes before departure
✓
QUESTION 5 / 25
What are the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) weather minima for flight visibility and distance from clouds in Class G airspace at or below 3,000 feet AMSL or 1,000 feet above terrain, whichever is higher?
Choose one answer below.
A
Flight visibility of 5 km; clear of clouds and in sight of the surface.
✓
B
Flight visibility of 8 km; 1,500 meters horizontal and 1,000 feet vertical separation from clouds.
✓
C
Flight visibility of 1.5 km; clear of clouds and in sight of the surface.
✓
D
Flight visibility of 5 km; 1.5 km horizontal and 1,000 feet vertical separation from clouds.
✓
QUESTION 6 / 25
Under what condition may lateral separation be established between two aircraft using the same VOR station for guidance under KCAA procedural control?
Choose one answer below.
A
When both aircraft are on radials that diverge by at least 15 degrees, and at least one aircraft is 15 NM or more from the station.
✓
B
When both aircraft are on radials that diverge by at least 30 degrees, and at least one aircraft is 15 NM or more from the station.
✓
C
When both aircraft are on radials that diverge by at least 15 degrees, regardless of their distance from the station.
✓
D
When both aircraft are on radials that diverge by at least 45 degrees, and at least one aircraft is 10 NM or more from the station.
✓
QUESTION 7 / 25
Which RTF spoken phrase indicates a distress condition where an aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance?
Choose one answer below.
A
MAYDAY, repeated three times
✓
B
PAN PAN, repeated three times
✓
C
SECURITE, repeated three times
✓
D
EMERGENCY, repeated three times
✓
QUESTION 8 / 25
At which point does the responsibility for control of an aircraft transfer from one air traffic control unit to another?
Choose one answer below.
A
Exactly at the common control area boundary, unless a letter of agreement (LOA) specifies otherwise.
✓
B
When the aircraft is first detected on the receiving unit's radar screen.
✓
C
Only after the pilot establishes two-way radio communication with the receiving unit.
✓
D
Five minutes prior to the aircraft's estimated time over the boundary facility.
✓
QUESTION 9 / 25
Under what meteorological conditions may an Air Traffic Control unit issue a Special VFR clearance to an aircraft wishing to enter a control zone?
Choose one answer below.
A
Ground visibility of at least 1,500 meters and a ceiling of not less than 600 feet.
✓
B
Ground visibility of at least 5 km and a ceiling of not less than 1,000 feet.
✓
C
Ground visibility of at least 1,500 meters and a ceiling of not less than 1,000 feet.
✓
D
Ground visibility of at least 3,000 meters and a ceiling of not less than 1,500 feet.
✓
QUESTION 10 / 25
What is the established Transition Altitude within the Nairobi Flight Information Region (FIR) for flights operating in Kenyan airspace?
Choose one answer below.
A
9,000 feet AMSL
✓
B
18,000 feet AMSL
✓
C
5,000 feet AMSL
✓
D
10,000 feet AMSL
✓
QUESTION 11 / 25
Within what period after landing at an aerodrome must a pilot submit an arrival report to close their flight plan, to prevent unnecessary search and rescue (SAR) activation?
Choose one answer below.
A
Within 30 minutes of landing
✓
B
Within 60 minutes of landing
✓
C
Within 15 minutes of landing
✓
D
Within 120 minutes of landing
✓
QUESTION 12 / 25
Which of the following statements is true regarding flight operations and ATC service in Class A airspace?
Choose one answer below.
A
Only IFR flights are permitted, and all flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from each other.
✓
B
Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, and all flights are separated from each other.
✓
C
IFR and VFR flights are permitted, but VFR flights only receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.
✓
D
Only IFR flights are permitted, but separation is only provided between IFR flights and known VFR flights.
✓
QUESTION 13 / 25
Under what circumstance may an aircraft deviate from an active Air Traffic Control clearance without obtaining an amended clearance?
Choose one answer below.
A
Only in an emergency requiring immediate action, or in response to an ACAS/TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA).
✓
B
Whenever the pilot-in-command determines that a shortcut is safe and will save fuel.
✓
C
When operating under Visual Flight Rules (VFR) in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
✓
D
During normal daylight operations when no other traffic is visible to the pilot.
✓
QUESTION 14 / 25
What is the minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights operating at or above FL100 (10,000 feet AMSL) in Class C airspace?
Choose one answer below.
A
8 km
✓
B
5 km
✓
C
10 km
✓
D
1.5 km
✓
QUESTION 15 / 25
Which ICAO Annex governs the establishment, organization, and provision of Air Traffic Services (ATC, Flight Information, and Alerting services)?
Choose one answer below.
A
Annex 11
✓
B
Annex 2
✓
C
Annex 10
✓
D
Annex 14
✓
QUESTION 16 / 25
According to the semi-circular cruising level rule, what flight levels should an IFR aircraft select when flying on a magnetic track of 090 degrees?
Choose one answer below.
A
Odd flight levels (e.g., FL50, FL70, FL90)
✓
B
Even flight levels (e.g., FL60, FL80, FL100)
✓
C
Any flight level, provided they maintain 2,000 feet vertical separation from oncoming traffic.
✓
D
Odd flight levels plus 500 feet (e.g., FL55, FL75, FL95)
✓
QUESTION 17 / 25
Under KCAA Personnel Licensing (PEL) regulations, what is the minimum currency requirement for an Air Traffic Controller rating to remain valid?
Choose one answer below.
A
The controller must have exercised the privileges of the rating for at least 10 hours in the preceding 90 days.
✓
B
The controller must have exercised the privileges of the rating for at least 40 hours in the preceding 90 days.
✓
C
The controller must undergo a practical simulation check every 30 days.
✓
D
The controller must log at least 50 hours of active control time every 12 months.
✓
QUESTION 18 / 25
What official document contains information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations?
Choose one answer below.
A
Notice to Airmen (NOTAM)
✓
B
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
✓
C
AIP Service Bulletins
✓
D
Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)
✓
QUESTION 19 / 25
What are the standard lateral and vertical dimensions of an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) under KCAA regulations?
Choose one answer below.
A
A cylinder centered on the aerodrome reference point with a radius of 2.5 NM, extending from the surface up to 2,000 feet AGL.
✓
B
A cylinder centered on the aerodrome reference point with a radius of 5 NM, extending from the surface up to 3,000 feet AGL.
✓
C
A box extending 10 NM along the active runway centerline, from the surface up to 1,500 feet AGL.
✓
D
A cylinder centered on the aerodrome reference point with a radius of 1.5 NM, extending from the surface up to 1,000 feet AGL.
✓
QUESTION 20 / 25
Which altimeter pressure setting represents the barometric pressure corrected to Mean Sea Level (MSL) based on standard atmospheric lapse rates, causing the altimeter to read altitude above MSL?
Choose one answer below.
A
QNH
✓
B
QFE
✓
C
QNE
✓
D
QFF
✓
QUESTION 21 / 25
In a METAR report, what does the group 'WS R06' indicate?
Choose one answer below.
A
Wind shear has been reported along the runway surface of Runway 06 or its approach path.
✓
B
Wind speed on Runway 06 is currently averaging 6 knots.
✓
C
Wet snow is present on Runway 06, affecting braking action.
✓
D
Wind direction is shifting on Runway 06 by 60 degrees.
✓
QUESTION 22 / 25
In a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), what does the code 'TEMPO 2810/2814' mean?
Choose one answer below.
A
Temporary fluctuations in weather conditions are expected to occur between 1000Z and 1400Z on the 28th day of the month.
✓
B
A permanent change in weather conditions will take place starting at 1000Z and complete by 1400Z on the 28th.
✓
C
The forecast temperature is expected to reach its maximum between 1000Z and 1400Z on the 28th.
✓
D
A temporary runway closure is scheduled between 1000Z and 1400Z on the 28th.
✓
QUESTION 23 / 25
How does the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) affect aviation weather patterns across Kenya during the transition periods (typically October-December and March-May)?
Choose one answer below.
A
It brings heavy convective activity, widespread thunderstorms, and low-level wind shear due to converging air masses.
✓
B
It creates extremely stable, dry air masses resulting in prolonged radiation fog and clear skies.
✓
C
It causes strong, persistent westerly gale-force winds and low-altitude jet streams across the Rift Valley.
✓
D
It has negligible impact on weather due to Kenya's proximity to the equator.
✓
QUESTION 24 / 25
During a microburst encounter on final approach, what typical sequence of performance changes will an aircraft experience?
Choose one answer below.
A
A strong headwind causing increased lift, followed by a severe downdraft and a sudden tailwind causing a critical loss of lift.
✓
B
A strong tailwind causing a loss of airspeed, followed by an updraft and a sudden headwind causing an overspeed.
✓
C
A sudden drop in temperature, followed by high turbulence and a continuous climb due to thermal updrafts.
✓
D
Severe roll oscillations, followed by altimeter fluctuations and a sudden heading change.
✓
QUESTION 25 / 25
Which cloud type presents the most severe hazards to aircraft operations, including severe turbulence, hail, lightning, and rapid structural icing?
Choose one answer below.
A
Cumulonimbus (CB)
✓
B
Nimbostratus (NS)
✓
C
Altocumulus lenticularis (AC)
✓
D
Cirrostratus (CS)
✓
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